Answers

Chapter 1 Answers

1. Define the following in your own words or the textbook’s terminology.
     a. Metabolism: Obtaining and using energy
     b. Homeostasis: Maintaining a stable internal environment
     c. Reacts: Responds to both internal and external stimuli
     d. Natural Selection: The organisms’ environment will favor those organisms with certain traits to have more reproductive success 
     e. Sexual Selection: Sexual mates are selected based on health or traits that suggest health or reproductive success.
     f. Artificial Selection: Humans choose which organisms are to reproduce and those which are not to reproduce to achieve desired traits.
     g. Autotroph: An organisms that gains energy from chemical or photosynthetic means
     h. Heterotroph: An organism that must get their food and energy from other organisms

2. Give the proper term for each of these: 
     a. Eats plants only: Herbivore
     b. Eats non-plants only: Carnivore
     c. Eats both plants and non-plants: Omnivore
     d. Eats dead or decaying organic matter: Detritovore

3. The text lists two plants that are not strictly autotrophs. Those two are: Venus fly trap and pitcher plant

4. True or False: a gene expresses code only for making proteins. FALSE - also encode control mechanisms

5. List three kinds of motion other than moving the entire organism from one place to another:

 a. organism’s parts move  b. intracellular movement of components  c.  movement of some plants’ parts toward light

6. What is vitalism? An outdated (since 1828) premise that all living things were made of special nonmaterial or spiritual components

Chapter 2 Answers

1. What term applies to a research project in which
     a. The researcher knows whether or not the participant is getting a placebo or investigational drug but the participant does not? Single-blind
     b. Both the researcher and participant know if the participant is getting a placebo or the investigational drug? Open-Label
     c. Both the researcher and participants are ignorant as to which participants are getting placebo or the investigational drug? Double-blind

2. Why did Pasteur use Swan-neck flasks for his famous experiment? To trap infectious particles from falling into the broth, but allows air exchange.

3. A student is doing a research project to see how pH of the soil affects growth of a particular grass seed. He sets up trays with three inches of soil from a particular patch of ground. He plants the same volume of grass seed in each tray. He then measures the pH of the soil in each tray and adjusts the soil pH in each tray by using lime.  When the grass has grown to a reasonable height, he trims off the grass at soil level and weighs the volume of grass grown in each tray.
     a. What is (are) the dependent variable(s) in this experiment? Weight of resultant grass
     b. What is (are) the independent variable(s) in this experiment. 3 inches of soil from different places, grass-seed, pH equalized

4.A friend of yours makes the assertion that there are never any non-Christian students being home-schooled because he has never seen any. What type of error or errors is he making in his statement?  Inadequate sampling and research

5. A doctor feels something enlarged in a patient’s abdomen and immediately makes a diagnosis of cancer.  What type of error or errors is the doctor making? Not considering other options

6. A patient is sent to a psychiatrist because he keeps snapping his fingers. When the psychiatrist asks him “Why are you snapping your fingers?”, the patient responds “ . . . to keep the elephants away.” The psychiatrist responds: “That’s absurd!” The patient says: “Oh yeah? Do you see any elephants here?” What kind of error is the patient making with his last observation? Problem in proving a negative

7. What did the research of Francesco Redi demonstrate? Life comes from life, not spontaneous generation.

8. Define or give examples of inductive, deductive and abductive reasoning: Inductive (“bottom up”): judging observations based on prior knowledge;  Deductive (“top down”): drawing logical conclusions from established facts; Abductive: coming to the best, but not provable, conclusion based on current observations and experience. Often relates to historical events that are not repeatable.

Chapter 3 Answers

1. What are biologists who categorize and name species called? Taxonomists

2. Who was the scientist who first created a modern taxonomy? Linnaeus

3.  List your favorite acronym for the hierarchical taxa in modern taxonomy starting   with ‘D’ for “Domain.” And write out the names, in order, for the other taxa. Mine is “Do Kings Play Chess On Fine Glass Sets” (Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species) What’s yours? 

4. In which taxon or group would the members have the most traits in common: family or genus?

5. What is our human taxonomy? Domain: Eukaryota, Kingdom: Animalia, Phylum: Chordata, Class: Mammalia, Order: Primates, Family: Hominidae. Genus: Homo , Species: sapiens

6. How would you define “phylogeny”? An organization of life based on presumed evolutionary relationships

7. What is a diagonal line with branches representing evolutionary ancestors and  descendants called? Cladogram

8. Where are the “nodes” located in the diagram described in #7 and what do they  represent? Branching point in evolution indicating new trait(s)

9. Which one(s) of these are correct:  “homo sapiens”,  “Homo sapiens”,  “Homo sapiens”,  or “Homo sapiens”? 

10. What is the standard definition of “species”? The largest group of organisms in which any two organisms of the appropriate genders or mating types can produce fertile offspring

11. The text describes six issues that confuse or confound the standard definition of “species.”  What are they? (Briefly, and in your own words.) 
     (1) Not relevant in asexual reproduction; 
     (2) Rapidly diversifying populations may have separations of groups by ecology or feeding or mating, but if no mates of the type, they will still mate with other groups and produce offspring; 
     (3) Ring species; 
     (4) lateral gene transfer, eg., bacterial conjugation or viral introduction of new DNA; 
     (5) Physical problems in copulation between mates; 
     (6) Hybrids 

12. What does “baramin” mean? A more inclusive taxonomic group than species based on presumed post Flood or Creation week kinds. It is a term from two Hebrew stems indicating “created kind.”

Chapter 4 Answers

1. What is the definition of an element? Matter which cannot be created using typical laboratory means, OR the most fundamental units of matter.

2. What is the definition of a compound? A combination of two or more elements bonded together.

Use the periodic table (Fig. 4-1 in textbook) to solve questions 3 – 9.

3. Argon is indicated in the table as “Ar”. What group is it in? Noble Gases

4. How many electrons are in the outer shell of an atom of Argon? 8

5. How many electron shells are there in Argon? 3

6. Based on your answer to #4, how likely is Argon to form a compound with another element? Unlikely – no valence electrons

7. The most common isotope of argon is argon40. What is the atomic weight of that isotope? 40 (actually slightly less)

8. How many neutrons does argon40 have? 40-18=22

9. Fluoride is indicated as “F” on this table. How many valence electrons does it have? 2+7=9, It does not have a full outer shell, so it has 7 valence electrons in its outer shell

10. Describe the nature of each of these kinds of bonds and give an example for each:
     a. Ionic Electron(s) attracted away from one element to another creating an electrostatic attraction of the two elements of each other: eg., NaCl
     b. Covalent Two elements share a pair of electrons – eg., hydrogen gas
     c. Hydrogen liquid water

11. List and describe the eight special attributes of water.
     a. Excellent solvent – dissolves all polar molecules
     b. Oils are hydrophobic, important for structure of cell membrane
     c. Solid water (i.e., ice) is less dense than liquid water
     d. Strong cohesion and adhesion
     e. Strong surface tension
     f. High heat capacity and heat of evaporation – helps cool us by perspiration
     g. Exists in all three forms in earth’s temperature range: gas, liquid, solid
     h. Lowest viscosity of any non-gaseous substance

12. Using the list of pH values for various materials table on the prior page, how many times more hydrogen ions does vinegar have than water does? Pure water pH is 7; vinegar is 3; 7-3 = 4 powers of 10 or 10,000x more H+ in vinegar

13. Draw a water molecule and label the atoms. Refer to figure 4-10 in the textbook.

14. How does the expanded lattice spacing of ice benefit aquatic creatures in water during winter months? Since ice floats, there is liquid water underneath for certain organisms to survive the winter

15. A paleoanthropologist is using the C14 technique to determine the approximate age of a fossilized bone brought from a dig.  He finds that the amount of C¹⁴ is ¼ of the full amount expected in a living bone.  Assuming the technique is accurate, how old is the specimen? It is two half-lives of C14 (1/2 then ¼). 2 x 5,730 = 11,460

16. A misguided biology college student tries to convince a classmate that C¹⁴ testing proves that the earth is 4.5 billion years old.  What is wrong with his reasoning? C14 testing is only accurate for a maximum age of 60,000 years (if that!)

Chapter 5 Answers

1.  How many carbons are there in a glucose molecule? 6

2.  How many carbons are there in a fructose molecule? 6

Notice that the linear formula for glucose and fructose appear identical, but two or three dimensional images reveal the different shapes of the two.

3.  What atom is distinctive for protein as compared to lipids and carbohydrates? N (nitrogen)

4.  What is the name of the molecule that stores energy in the liver and muscle? glycogen

5.  What are the top four common elements in the human body? Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

6.  Why is carbon so useful for making long molecules? Having four Valence electrons with high affinity allows multiple geometric configurations and a tendency to form long chain polymers.

7.  What two monosaccharides are joined to make sucrose? Glucose + Fructose

8.  How are the following used by plants:
     a. Cellulose? Supportive structures
     b. Lignin? “Woody” structures

9. How is pectin useful to us? Bowel health, soluble fiber (which reduces cholesterol)

10. Which of each pair is better for your health?
     a. Saturated vs. unsaturated lipids
     b. Cis or trans fatty acids
     c.  Low density or high-density lipids

11. What kind of chemical reaction attaches lipids to glycerol to make triglycerides, and also combines amino acids into protein? Dehydration reactions

12.  Are lipids hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

13.  Which kind of amino acid molecules are used in almost all organisms: levo- or dextro- forms?

14.  What gland produces epinephrine (adrenaline)? Adrenal medulla

15.  List five functions of adrenocortical hormones:
     a. They control the metabolism of carbohydrates
     b. Balance of electrolytes in blood (Na, K, Cl)
     c. They participate in inflammatory responses, stress responses, and aspects of the immune response

16.  Many foods may have content that is predominantly carbohydrate, fat/lipid or protein with significantly less portion of the other two.  For each of these foods, indicate if they are primarily sources of protein, carbohydrate or fat.
     a. Bagel Carbs
     b. Beans and lentils Proteins
     c.  Candy bar Sugar and some Fat
     d.  Donuts Fat and some sugar

17. What is the difference between Kwashiorkor and starvation? Kwashiorkor is due to a severe lack of protein in diet.  Starvation refers to severe caloric restriction in ALL food groups

Did you know that 100 calories of broccoli have more protein than 100 calories of steak? That may surprise you, because we are used to comparing food by weight or volume. 100 calories of broccoli have significantly more volume. That’s why many people who are vegan or vegetarian stay well-nourished and satisfied.

Chapter 6 Answers

1. After each organelle or cell part, indicate if it is one or several of these by ‘X’s:                                                                                                      

2.  Before each organelle or cell part in the left column, indicate the letter of the matching function in the right column.

3. What are the three parts of the Cell Theory established in 1839?  
     a. All organisms are made of cells or a cell.
     b. Cells are the basic structural and organizational unit of all organisms.
     c. All cells come from pre-existing cells

For each of the following, indicate if the statement is ‘T’rue or ‘F’alse

4. __T___ Plant cells have a large central vacuole containing water.

5. __F___ The pili on a bacterial cell are for propulsion (i.e., movement).

6. __F___ The flagellum is a very simple structure.

7. __T___ The plasmid in bacterial cells is made of DNA.

8. __F___ Prokaryotic cells have a nuclear membrane.

9. __T___ A prokaryotic cell is often about the same size as a mitochondrion.

0. __F___ As a cell gets bigger in volume the surface area increases to the same proportion.With respect to this last item: As an exercise, prove or disprove your answer by filling in the table with the values as indicated.  Assume a cell is a perfect cube. The key values are the following:

The width of a side in certain increments from 25 micrometers (typical animal cell) to 145 micrometers (a typical human ovum) in increments of 40 micrometer units.

The volume in cubic micrometers for each increment. (Side x side x side)

The surface area in square micrometers 6x(side x side)

 In the final column for each increment, calculate the ratio of surface area to volume.   

Width of Side        Area (6x side)               Volume (Side³)             Area/Volume

Chapter 7 Answers

1. Using your own words, define “naturalism.” The philosophic view that the only reality is in the physical realm with no supernatural phenomena. You could also limit your definition to “scientific materialism” which essentially refuses to consider supernatural agents or phenomena.

2.  Using your own words, define “Theistic Evolution.” Belief that neo-Darwinian evolution is true but acknowledges to some degree that a Creator may have steered it.

3.  Using your own words, define “Descent with Modification.” The idea that all living things share common ancestors with other living things and ultimately came from one organism.

4.  According to the Endosymbiotic Theory, where did mitochondria come from? Aerobic bacteria (a type of prokaryote) that were symbiotic and ended up as permanent parts what was now the eukaryote cell.

5.  According to the Endosymbiotic Theory, where did chloroplasts come from? From photoautotrophic prokaryotes that were symbiotic and ended up as permanent parts what was now the eukaryote cell.

6.  When you see the crystalline structure of rock salt, would you assume that there was an intelligent designer behind that particular instance? My original intention in posing this question was to consider only things that met the “irreducibly complex criteria.”  Almost all students accepted the question at face value and, acknowledging our creator as the source of basic laws of chemistry, affirmed rock salt as a result of an intelligent designer. I must bow to your piety and accept a positive answer.

7.  Using your own words, define “Irreducible Complexity.” Evidence of an intelligent designer if features of organisms require multiple components to be operational at one time with no parts without an apparent function.

8.  Other than a mousetrap, think of one other device that reflects the work of human designer(s). Various correct answers

9.  What is the biologic definition of the word “Population”? All those organisms that are of the same species are within a given geographic area.

10.  What makes a hypothesis “falsifiable”? If there is a possibility that a hypothesis could be proven wrong by experiment or observation.

11.  How is “irreducible complexity” antithetical or contrary to neo-Darwinian evolution? Neo-Darwinian evolution proposes that changes in organisms are slow to accrue one-at-a-time due to random mutations. If a mutation does not make the organism more reproductively successful, that mutation is eventually bred out over several generations. New structures that are irreducibly complex must have all components present at the same time.

12. What is the purpose of the intermeshed cogs between the hips of certain plant hopper nymphs? By keeping the movement and force of both hips synchronized, the nymph’s phenomenal leaps are accurate in direction.

Chapter 8 Answers

1. What does it mean to say that someone’s visual acuity is 15/20? That someone needs to be 15 feet away to clearly see that which most people can see well at 20 feet.

2. Which of the following is true? (Refer to the Appendix article on measurements and scientific notation as needed.)
a. With a light microscope our visual resolution is equal to 0.2 micrometer.
b. With a light microscope our visual resolution is equal to 200 nanometers.
c. With a light microscope our visual resolution is equal to 2 x 10^-7 meters.
d. All of these are true.
e. None of these are true.

3. A student is using a compound microscope. She notices that the ocular lens is marked 20x and she is using the objective lens marked 40x. What is the effective magnification for what she is examining?  20x40 = 800

4. True or False? When using a microscope, it is a good idea to start with an objective lens that is the highest power. Justify your answer.

     (Justification) If you start at the highest power you will find it more difficult to find the specimen. If you use the coarse focus, you might crack the objective lens through the cover slip. Both of these problems are eliminated by searching, then focusing with the shortest and lowest power lens first. Then the higher power lenses will be close to focus and minor tweaking with the fine focus will be safe.

5. What is a “well slide”? A slide with a concave depression to allow enough depth for larger specimens

6. What kind of electron microscope is ideal for seeing something very small as a fully intact structure in 3 dimensions instead of a cross section by means of the electron beam being reflected off of it instead of going through the specimen? Scanning EM

7. True or False? The best way to apply a cover slip onto a slide is to hold it very closely parallel to the slide and then drop it straight down.

8. A student is visiting an advanced biology lab at a university and is given an opportunity to look at a living specimen through a light microscope. He notices that the background around the specimen is black and the subject is naturally colorful. What kind of light microscope is this? Dark field microscopy

9. A graduate student working with an electron microscope comes out with a fresh photograph of his work. Is it in color or black and white? (assuming it isn’t false-colored)  Black & white

Chapter 9 Answers

1. What are the three domains of life?
     a. Archaea                      b. Bacteria                           c. Eukarya

2. What is the dangerous bacterium that may infect the bowels after the normal bacterial population is wiped out by strong antibiotics? Clostridium dificile or C. Dif

3. If an organism can produce its own food or energy source, what is it called? Autotroph

4. If an organism must get it energy source from other organic material, what is it called?   Heterotroph

5 If an organism must get it energy source from other organic material, what is it called?  Saprophyte

6. Do all bacteria need oxygen? No (anerobes don’t even tolerate oxygen)

7. There are three types of symbiosis described in chapter 9. Name and give a brief definition for each one:
     a. Mutualistic – both parties benefit
     b. Parasitic – parasite benefits to detriment of host
     c. Commensalistic – one has a place to live and the host is not harmed

8. What is “morphology”? Shape of something

9. What is the difference in morphology between a staphylococcus and a streptococcus?  Staph is a cluster of cocci, Strept is a chain.

10. Some bacteria can go into a suspended state when the environment is not providing sufficient critical resources for it. What is that called? Endospore or sporulation

11. Name and define the three ways that bacteria can share genetic information: 
     a. Conjugation – sending DNA by means of specialized pilus
     b. Transduction – Bacteriophage may carry bits of another bacteria’s DNA to another.
     c. Transformation – Bacteria can pick up DNA from environment, esp. biofilm.

12. What are the three main ways that bring about bacterial resistance to antibiotics? 
     a. All the ways mentioned above that bacteria spread or share DNA 
     b. Overuse in agriculture/animal husbandry with spillover into environment
     c. Over-prescription of antibiotics encourages resistance bacteria to develop by natural selection

13. What are two scientific methods being studied to combat antibiotic resistance in bacteria?     

     a. Kill the bacteria with a phage or... 
     b. Use phage to introduce DNA into the bacteria that restores sensitivity

14. What is the term for bacteria operating on their own? planktonic

15. What is a proper scientific name for “bacterial cities”? biofilm

16. Name three places where one may find such “bacterial cities”?
     a. Dental plaque
     b. Artificial joints
     c. Internal catheters, among many others

17. What two ways do archaea reproduce that are different than bacteria?
a. budding     b. fragmentation

18. Is protein synthesis in archaea more like the way it is done in bacteria or the way it is done in eukaryotes?

19. Which of the two prokaryotic domains is more likely to have members that are extremophiles? Archaea

20. What does MRSA stand for? Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

21. In the page that is a list of bacteria and diseases, there are two than are mentioned as being capable of surviving as endospores. What are they?
          a. Clostridia tetani (Tetanus)           b. Clostridia botulinum

Chapter 10 Answers

1. Which is the best definition of the Kingdom Protista (pick one)?
a. All single-celled organisms
b. All eukaryotic organisms that are not fungus, plant or animal
c. All organisms that live in water
d. All organisms that are not bacteria or archaea

2. Indicate ‘T’ true or ‘F’ false for each statement below.

F_____ a. The kingdom Protista is made up of organisms that all share an evolutionary  history and have defined shared characteristics.

T_____ b. Algae are characterized by using photosynthesis.

T_____ c. Euglena are protozoa not algae.

F_____ d. Large kelp and seaweed are a lot like plants in that they have true stems and roots.

T_____ e. Some dinoflagellates display bioluminescence

F_____ f. Vorticella are sporozoans

T_____ g. Giardia are protozoa that can contaminate wells or make campers miserable.

F_____ h. Amoebas are ciliates.

T_____ i. Paramecia are ciliates.

F_____ j. Malaria is caught from polluted air.

T_____ k. Stentor is trumpet or funnel shaped.

T_____l. Radiolaria have beautiful skeletons.

F_____m. Slime molds belong in the kingdom Fungi 

Match the picture with the organism(s) by writing the letter of the name by the proper picture out of the selections below:

4. Describe three ways in which malaria spores “hide” from a human’s immune system. By being shrouded in liver, red blood cells or bone marrow.

Chapter 11 Answers

1. Which one of the following is NOT a way that fungi meet their energy needs.
     a. saprophytic
b. parasitic
     c. photosynthesis
     d. symbiotic

2. T or F: Hyphae are structured just like plant roots.

3. What are the fungal structures that enable some fungi to use external digestion, i.e., digesting other cells’ contents outside of its own body? Haustoria

4. What is the underground network of hyphae called? Mycelium

5. What is the layman’s term for a circle of mushroom fruiting bodies? “Fairy Circle”

6. Do all mushrooms have gills? No

7. What kind of mushroom are you likely to see growing on an upright tree trunk? Shelf

8. What special mechanism do puffballs have to disseminate their spores? They expel them like a cloud

9. What is the best way to eat an Amanitas? Not at all – they’re poisonous mimics

10. What two kinds of sac fungi are considered delicious?

     a. morels               b. truffles

11. What kind of yeast causes severe rashes in moist skin folds, especially in diabetics? Candida albicans

12. If you were a tree, what kind of fungus would you want in your roots? mycorrhizae

13. What type of creatures are dying off because of chytrids? Amphibians

14. State one rash which is a dermatophytosis: 

cradle cap, ringworm, athlete’s feet, jock itch etc.

15. Name three kinds of antibiotics derived from fungi: penicillins, cyclosporins, cephalosporins

Chapter 12 Answers

1. What is the name of the scientific discipline that deals with plants? Botany

2. Which type of plant grows by adding more to the above ground parts every year: Herbaceous or Woody?

3. What is the key difference between ferns and conifers? Ferns have spores, conifers have seeds

4. Why are ferns tall and mosses never are? Mosses lack vascular structures

5. Why do reindeer eat moss, even if other food is available? A chemical in moss helps their circulation in freezing temperatures.

6. List four differences between spores and seeds:
     a. Spores are single-celled but seeds have a multicellular embryo
     b. Spores have little protective cover, seeds have a thick covering.
     c. Spores do not contain food, seeds carry a lunch
     d. Spores need to land where it is wet or moist, seeds are more hearty

7. In any given conifer variety, which are bigger: male cones or female cones?

8. What does the Greek “Ptero-“ mean? Wing or feather

9. What are three principles that drive fluid up xylem tubes?
     a. hydraulic vacuum at the top due to transpiration
     b. adhesion starts pulling up the sides of the meniscus
     c. cohesion pulls up water level with the sides of the xylem

10. Of all the water that trees take in, what percentage is used for the tree as compared to the total amount transpired? 1%

11. Many plant tissues are kept stiff because of cellulose and what other compound? Lignen or meristem tissue

12. What happens when leaf stomata are open? Gas exchange (CO2 in, O2 out) and water loss

13. Write the basic chemical equation that summarizes what happens in photosynthesis.
6CO2 + 6H2O + Light Energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2
Carbon dioxide + Water + Light Energy → Sugar + Oxygen

14. Is the Calvin cycle light-dependent? NO

15. What is the purpose of the light reactions in chlorophyll? To convert radiant (light) energy to chemical energy

16. What is the Endosymbiotic Theory? That chloroplasts and mitochondria were the results of protocells living symbiotically with blue-green algae and aerobic bacteria

17. What part of a flower is the female organ? Pistil

18. What part of a flower is the male part? Stamen

19. What are “piggy-back” plants? Plantlets growing out of a leaf

20. What is the difference in how auxins work as contrasted with nastic motion? Auxins make tissues softer and encourage cell growth, nastic movements are due to osmotic shifts and their response is non-directional.

21. Matching – you know what to do!
     C_____ Phototropism                                                 A. Venus fly-catcher
     A_____ Nastic motion                                                B. Vine wrapping around a pole
     D_____ Geotropism                                                    C. Auxin is active on shady side
     B_____ Thigmotropism                                              D. Seed doesn’t grow roots upward
     F_____ Apical Dominance                                         E. Why leaves drop in the Fall
     E_____ Ethylene                                                          F. Sacrifices width for height

22. What is the benefit of each of these elements in fertilizer?
     a. Phosphorous: Increased root health
     b. Nitrogen: increased vegetative growth
     c. Potassium- overall health and increased chlorophyll

23. For each of the following aspects of photosynthesis, indicate if it is part of the light-dependent reactions (L+) or light-independent reactions (L-).

     a. Rubisco _L-____         b. Photons _L+____        c. Calvin Cycle _L-____      
     d. Water molecules are split _L+____           e. Glucose produced _L-____

Chapter 14 Answers

1. What is the difference between “dorsal” and “ventral”? Dorsal is the back or top of an organism that walks or crawls on the ground. Ventral is the bottom. However, in bipedal folks like us dorsal refers to our backs and ventral refers to our front.

2. True of False: For each of the following candidates to be a general characteristic of arthropods, mark whether they are true or false.
     A_T____ They have jointed extremities.
     B_F____ Most have silica exoskeletons. Chitin, not silica
     C_F____ The nerve cord(s) run along the dorsal side of the body. ventral
     D_F____ They have actual lungs. Not lungs, but gills
     E_T____ An opening in their exoskeleton cold mean they would bleed to death.

3. Matching (You know what to do)
     a. Class Crustacea                 L_____ Excellent combat fliers
     b. Class Arachnida                 J_____ Excellent mimics
     c. Class Chilopoda                 G_____ Wing veins are parallel to edge of wing and straight
     d. Class Diplopida                  F_____ Pests and disease carriers
     e. Order Lepidoptera             D_____ 2 legs per segment
     f. Order Diptera                       B_____ Horseshoe crab
     g. Order Orthoptera                A_____ Barnacles
     h. Order Hymenoptera           C_____ Called “hundred leggers”
     i. Order Coleoptera                 H_____ Social insects
     j. Order Phasmida                   E_____ Butterflies
     k. Order Mantodea                  K_____ In posture of prayer
     l. Suborder Anisoptera            I_____ Bombardier beetle

4. List three main differences between (A)arachnids and(I) insects:
     a. (A) 4 pairs of legs / (I) 3 pairs
     b. (A) Cephalothorax and abdomen / (I) Head, thorax and abdomen
     c. (A)  No wings or antennae / (I) Wings (at some point in life) and antennae

5. List three differences between (M) millipedes and (C) centipedes:
     a. (M) 2 pairs of legs per segment / (C) one pair of legs per segment
     b. (M) non predatory / (C) predatory with toxin
     c. (M) cylindrical body plan /  (C) flat bodies

6. What are the differences between complete and incomplete metamorphosis? While complete metamorphosis goes from egg to larva to pupa to adult; incomplete metamorphosis goes from egg to nymph to adult and the nymph looks like a miniature adult.

7. List three differences between butterflies and moths
     a. Bs rest with wings vertical, Ms rest with wings out to sides
     b. Ms have thicker bodies and antennae
     c. Ms have club-shaped antennae, Bs have thin stalk-like antennae

8. What are halteres? Many diptera have very small rear wings which are used more for balance in flight than providing actual lift and propulsion

9. What two things are communicated by the bee “waggle dance”?
     a. Distance to rich pollen and nectar source
      b. Direction to  “       “         “        “         “

10. Other than being in a different order, what are the three differences between dragon flies and damsel flies?
     a. Damsels hold wings back at rest / Dragons rest with wings stretched out to side
     b.  Damsels are less acrobatic in their flight
     c.  Damsels are thinner and more delicate

Chapter 15 Answers

1. What is the key difference between invertebrates and chordates with respect to the nervous system? Dorsal instead of ventral main nerve trunk 

2 What is a notochord? A semiflexible rod which runs along the dorsal side of the organisms and provides support and attachment points for muscles 

3. In an adult sea squirt, what functions as a substitute for the notochord it had as a larva, but no longer has? The tough outer tunic 

4. What are some differences between sea squirts and sponges? Sea squirts have tissues and organs whereas sponges do not. Also, the direction of water flow is opposite in the two. 

5. What does a lancelet have that a larval tunicate doesn’t have that gives it the name CEPHALOchordate? A head 

6. In contrast with fish, what is lacking in a hag eel and lamprey eel?  Jaws 

7. What do lateral lines in sharks and bony fish sense? Vibrations 

8. What do the ampules of Lorenzini sense? Electrical fields 

9. Why do hammerhead sharks have such a weird head? Their eyes are widespread to provide excellent stereoscopic vision. 

10. What is the difference between “oviparous” and “viviparous”? Oviparous gives birth to eggs, but viviparous gives birth to fully formed progeny  without encasing. 

11. Which of these two has a longer tail with a barb: skate or ray? 

12. What does “ectothermic” mean? Body tends to follow environmental temperature. 

13. What does “endothermic” mean? Body produces its own heat within. 

14. In seahorses, which one carries the babies: Mom or Dad? 

15. How is the skeleton of amphibians different than that of sharks? Amphibians’ skeletons are largely bone, whereas shark skeletons are almost all cartilage. 

16. What three structures do frogs use for breathing?
a. Lining of mouth                      b. Skin                              c. Lungs 

17. How do you tell a caecilian from a snake? No scales, thin moist skin

Chapter 16 Answers

1. What group of reptiles are endothermic and have a four-chambered heart? Crocodilians 

2. List the four differences between lizards and snakes:
              a. Snakes have specialized scales on their ventral side called scutes.
              b. Snakes are limbless
              c. Snakes have no ears and are deaf.
              d. Snakes have no eyelids. 

3. What sensation is provided by a Jacobson’s Organ? Smell 

4. What sensation is provided by a loreal pit? Heat 

5. If you see a striped snake and its red stripes touch the yellow stripe, do you run or hunker down to study it? RUN!  "Red touch yellow could hurt a fellow!"

6. What is the main difference between a turtle and a tortoise? A turtle has flippers for swimming, a tortoise has feet and lives on land. 

7. What kind of lizard species may have a third eye on top of its head? Iguana 

8. Do chameleons change color to blend in with their background? No, more likely to communicate mood or emotional state. 

9. What group of lizards can squirt blood out of the corner of their eye? Some horned lizards

10. How are ospreys’ talons different than most other kinds of birds? One of their front three talons can rotate to the back so they have a better grip on fish (2 by 2). 

11. What are three ways that birds conserve weight for flying?
              a. Hollow bones
              b. Most organs are single which in other vertebrates are in pairs.
              c. They do not retain feces in a large bowel 

12. What is unique about birds’ respiratory system? One-way continuous airflow instead of in and out. They have several air sacs. They have a countercurrent arrangement with many blood vessels flow opposite the direction of airflow. 

13. How many cones are in the retinas of birds that are active in the daytime? four 

14. What is different about the middle ear of mammals as contrasted with other vertebrates? Mammals have three inner ear bones.  

15. List five things different about the platypus in contrast to all other mammal groups?
              a. Has a bill      b. Has a claw on rear feet with toxin .      c. Has a lot more sex chromosomes     d. Has web feet            e. Lays eggs 

16. Where do most marsupials live? Southern hemisphere (S. America and Australia) 

17. What group makes up 40% of placental mammals? Rodents

Chapter 17 Answers

1. It has been stated that we are made of “stardust.” Why would such a statement be made? For one reason: only a few stars are of the right size to forge the heavy elements, necessary for us. This is reflected in our bodies’ composition reflects the makeup of the universe. (See pages 47-48) 

2. What is the difference between the Strong Anthropic Principle and the Weak Anthropic Principle? SAP: the universe is in some sense compelled to produce conscious and intelligent life.  The WAP: the universe is one of many and only one kind produces what is needed to produce intelligent observers. 

3. Can you list four benefits of the exact location of earth in the galaxy?             
     a. We are not exposed to fatal ionizing radiation. (Not too close to center of the Galaxy)            
     b. Too far out and there wouldn’t be enough star production of heavy metals. 
     c. If we were in the middle of a spiral arm, it would be too hot.             
     d. We have a clear view to learn about the universe. 

4. What three problems would there be if the earth were significantly closer to the sun?            
     a. Too hot        
     b. Water would exist only as vapor.            
     c. We would be fixed in a position with the same side of earth always facing the sun 

5. What two problems would there be if the earth was further from the sun?        
     a. Too cold             
     b. Sparse liquid water 

6. What three benefits do we get from our moon?             
     a. Maintains the orbital tilt of earth for limiting seasonal variations.             
     b. Stronger tides resulting in mixing of elements, a niche for intertidal organisms, and better heat distribution             
     c. Permits study of the sun and aspects of the Theory of Relativity 

7. What benefit is there for us as a result of plate tectonics? Crustal metals are renewed from below. 

8. What is the magnetosphere and how does it benefit life? A magnetic field caused by circulating molten iron in the outer core that deflects damaging solar wind. 

9.  What percentage of the solar output is of benefit to us? 75%

Chapter 18 Answers

1. For each of the following statements, indicate if the statement is True or False.           _T____ Water is the only substance that exists in all three phases in the ambient temperature range on earth.
     _F____ We humans are about 50% water. (More like 70%) 
     _F____ Water’s cohesion adhesion property allows it to seep into cracks in rock.
     _T____ Capillary action draws water from soil into plant roots.
     _F____ Water’s latent heat makes our seasons change very abruptly more gradually.
     _T____ Water’s low viscosity makes diffusion more effective.
     _F____ 30 years of clean water regulations have solved the problem of water pollution in the United States.
     _F____ Bacteria are a trivial part of the nitrogen cycle. 

2. What is the difference between specific heat and latent heat? Specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of water by one degree centigrade. Latent heat is the amount of heat loss with an amount of evaporation. 

3. What did deforestation in Northern New Hampshire in the early 20^th century have to do with water quality in the Merrimack River? The massive loss of trees reduced filtration of rain and underground water sources. 

4. What currently is the most significant risk for the quality of water in the Merrimack River? Population increase with increased road and housing construction. 

5. What are two benefits of relatively modest concentrations of oxygen in the atmosphere? If the concentration was a little higher, uncontrolled combustion would be threatening. If lower, it would not sustain active animals such as mammals and birds. 

6. What is the biggest source of oxygen? Photosynthesis by land plants and oceanic plankton 

7. What is the biggest loss of oxygen? Aerobic respiration and fossil fuel combustion 

8. What is “nitrogen assimilation”? Living organisms assimilate nitrogenous compounds which are returned to the soil when they die. 

9. What is the importance of HCO₃^-  to our bodies? Buffers acidity in out blood, encourages oxygen release from hemoglobin in tissues. 

10. What is the approximate pH of the oceans? 8.2 

11. What is the role of (a)carbonic acid in the oceans and (b)where does it come from? Carbonic acid forms from carbon dioxide in the oceans and serves as a “carbon sink” with the downside of ocean acidification. 

12. What are the five main human causes of increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
     a. Burning of fossil fuels
     b. Land use that results in erosion and washing out of carbon from the soil
     c. Dietary preferences
     d. Deforestation
     e. Making cement 

13. State the “precautionary principle” in your own words. If the effects caused by humans may be harmful to the environment, action should be taken to prevent it, even if there may not be enough data to confirm with certainty that there is potential for harm.

Chapter 19 Answers

1. What are the two main components of an ecosystem? Biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) 

2. The biosphere is comprised of several  Ecosystems? 

3. Define a community. A group of populations that live and interact with each other and the abiotic portion of an ecosystem 

4. What is a synonym for a producer? Autotroph 

5. What are the two kinds of decomposers and how are they different from each other? Saprophytes secret enzymes for external digestion (eg. fungi, bacteria) whereas detritovores directly ingest dead organisms.

6. Define what an organism’s trophic level is. The organism’s energy consumption and output within a food chain. 

7. What is the energy source for a primary producer? Either sunlight or certain chemicals. 

8. How much energy is lost as you go up a trophic level in a food/energy pyramid? 90% of the energy of the trophic level below 

9. What is a biome? Biologic communities that have formed in response to a shared physical climate: rainfall, temperature range – particularly the number of freezes 

10. A land biome is defined by the type of vegetation. The type of vegetation, in turn, depends on what two factors? Precipitation and temperature 

11. In considering a biome, if you climb about 300 meters, the change in vegetation corresponds to traveling how far toward the nearest pole? 600 miles 

12. The North Pole ice cap has been shrinking. What two problems does this cause that may add to global warming? Loss of albedo that reflects solar energy and thawing of permafrost with release of carbon and methane 

13. In Taiga or boreal forests, what is the most dominant form of plants? Conifers, bogs and marshes 

14. What kind of trees are prominent in temperate deciduous forests? Broadleaf forests 

15. In the chaparral, are all fires bad? No, they cause recycling of minerals and carbon, are necessary for some species to germinate or grow. 

16. What kind of biome used to support large herds of bison? Grasslands (prairies or plains) 

17. Cacti use an unusual pattern of photosynthesis as a desert adaptation. Describe it. Crassulacean Acid Metabolism allows closure of stomata in the day with CO2 taken in at night and stored as malic acid. 

18. Why is there relatively little vegetation on the floor of tropical rainforests? Dense overhead tree canopy and frequent rain leach minerals out of the soil. 

19. What kind of biome is the U.S. Hoh forest? Temperate rain forest 

20. By what two means is global warming damaging coral reefs? Warmer and more acidic ocean water damages the cnidarians that make up the coral structures. 

21. What are the two risks to ocean wildlife from plastic debris? Getting entangled in larger pieces or ingesting plastic, especially in the form of microplastics.

Chapter 20 Answers

1. What do you think is the main reason that species should be protected from extinction? Answers may vary, including: Loss of Biodiversity, Failure of biologic communities and food networks. 

2. Why do herds of prey animals actually improve in health when they have predators? Weaker or sickly members of the population are removed from the gene pool. 

3.  Why is the threat to honey bees of colony collapse disorder important to us as a species? Many of our plant food sources depend on bee pollination. 

4. Can you think of three roles provided by the aspen and willow trees in Yellowstone? Food for Elk, healthier behaviors for elk, and poor supplies for beaver dams 

5. What would have been possible problems if the managers of Yellowstone Park had brought in Indian wolves from western China to hunt deer and elk? As invasive or alien species, they may not have fit into the food chain as well or may over-hunt. 

6. Why do you think that before white settlers came into the western U.S. native Americans never threatened the bison population? Native Americans hunted bison for needs, not for marketing and therefore their hunting was more sustainable for bison population. 

7. Why do you think that Australia has trouble with so many European rabbits? No natural predators 

8. What would be a good solution to the dilemma of controlling the population of a species that is an important source of food to indigenous people in the area? Put limits on harvesting with focus on providing a food sources for local indigenous populations. 

9. Which one of the following is not extinct?
a. The dodo bird
b. The passenger pigeon
c. The Tasmanian wolf
d.  The purple finch
e.  The St. Helena olive tree 

10.  This is a quote from the Washington Post: “Stink bugs destroy fruits and vegetables and drive up produce prices. They first showed up in Allentown, Pa., in 1998 after crawling out of a cargo ship that probably stopped in China, their native land. There, stink bugs aren’t a problem because small wasps lay eggs on their backs and the babies use them for a meal as they grow. With no wasps in the mid-Atlantic, they became marauders.” 

What would be a potential problem for each of these possible solutions?             

a. Import Chinese wasps. Risk of introducing an invasive species
b. Develop a new insecticide that is specific to them. The insecticide may harm other species.
c.  Genetically engineer a parasite that kills them. The insecticide may not be specific enough with harm to other insect populations.
d. Genetically modify fruit that is resistant to them. Unpredictability of impact on fruit quality 

Chapter 21 Answers

1.   What do the beginning syllables “glyco-“ mean in glycoproteins and glycolipid? An attached carbohydrate molecule  

2.   Describe what cholesterol does for the plasma membrane. Keeps it flexible at colder temperatures 

3.   Describe what glycolipids do for the plasma membrane. They are identification tags on cells so immune system cells can distinguish self from “other” cells. 

4.   If you were a cold-water fish, what would you do for your cell membranes when winter comes? Add more cholesterol molecules, especially with unsaturated “tails” 

5.   Which lipid type in the phospholipids helps keep membranes flexible in the cold? (Saturated or unsaturated?) 

6.  What passive membrane channel is specifically for water? Aquaporin 

7.   How do small uncharged or unpolarized molecules enter through the membrane? Passive diffusion 

8.   In type II or “Late-onset” diabetes mellitus, where is the problem in getting glucose in the cells? Abnormalities in carrier proteins for glucose 

9.   You are observing a single-celled organism under the microscope.  It was originally in isotonic saline (salt-water) but you notice that as the water evaporates that the cell looks a little shrunken. Without taking your eye off the ocular lens, you reach over and add a drop of what you thought was isotonic saline to the slide. Unfortunately, you inadvertently added pure water.  The organism swells and explodes.  What happened here? It would appear that a hypotonic solution was added, as a result osmotic forces brought excess water into the cell. 

10.  List three kinds of active transports for the membrane:
      a. Transport pumps like the Na/potassium pump            
      b. Endocytosis             
      c. Exocytosis 

11. What membrane proteins help stabilize the plasma membrane to the cytoarchitecture? Integral proteins 

12. What active protein configurations in the cell membrane are necessary to maintain an electrical potential charge across the membrane? Transport pumps 

13. Describe the “Fluid-Mosaic Model” of the plasma membrane: Plasma membranes are made of double layers of phospholipids with the phospho- on the outside as they are hydrophilic for the watery extracellular and intracellular fluid and the lipids are oriented inside the membrane because they are hydrophobic.

Chapter 22 Answers

1. Acetyl Coenzyme A occurs in:     
     ?a. Glycolysis or     
     ?b. The link reaction into the Krebs Cycle, or     
     ?c.  The mitochondrial inner membrane. 

2. Which exercise is primarily aerobic, as opposed to anaerobic: weight lifting for the most you can lift six times, or jogging to the mailbox and back?   

3. During anaerobic exercise, what compound builds up, producing muscle burning or cramping? Lactic Acid 

4. In yeast fermentation, what two things is pyruvate converted to? Carbon dioxide and EtOH (alcohol)

5. Where specifically does the ETC occur? Inner membrane of the mitochondrion 

6. What does the ETC. stand for? Electron Transport Chain 

7. Why are high-energy electrons dropped in small bits of energy at a time? Controlled release of energy is more readily utilized and less destructive 

8. What element is the final electron acceptor in the ETC, thereby creating the pull of high-energy electrons through four complexes that reduce energy? Oxygen

9. What is another name for the Krebs Cycle? Citric Acid Cycle 

10. What do NADP, NAD and FAD have in common?   They are electron carriers.

11.  If a compound loses an electron or electrons, is it reduced or oxidized?  

12. Specify what these two mnemonics represent:    
     a. OIL RIG:   Oxidation is Loss; Reductions is Gain (of an electron) 
     b: LEO says GER: Loss (of an electron) is oxidation; Gain (of an electron) is reduction

13. In the ETC, how is the energy progressively released from electrons used?  To produce a proton gradient by oxidation

14. In the inner mitochondrial membrane, there is embedded the top of an enzyme that operates like a turbine. What is the enzyme? ATP Synthetase 

15. What does that enzyme produce as its final output? ATP 

16. What is the maximum number of ATP molecules produced for each molecule of glucose fed into cellular respiration? 38 or less

17. What are the two waste products of cellular respiration? Carbon Dioxide & Water 

18. Write the basic equation for cellular respiration. 
          C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ --> 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + 38 (or less) ATP + heat

Chapter 23 Answers

1. What are the receiving branches off of a neuron called? Dendrites 

2.What is the long output extension of a neuron called? Axon 

3. What is the resting membrane potential of a nerve? -70 mv 

4. What happens in each of these events?

     a. Depolarization: Sodium channels open and sodium pours into the cell
     b. Overshoot: Potassium comes in with a hyperpolarization 
     c Propagation: One way depolarization down the axon with voltage gated channels temporarily closed behind. 

5. What does the term “All or Nothing” mean? Once depolarization reaches or exceeds-55 mv, then the depolarization brings the potential up to +30 mv. Those are the threshold and total spike regardless of the strength of the triggering stimulus. 

6. What is the most common neurotransmitter chemical secreted into a synaptic cleft? acetylcholine 

7. What is another name for a striated or voluntary muscle? Skeletal muscle 

8. What is the thin filament in a muscle fiber? actin 

9. What is the thick filament in a muscle fiber? myosin 

10. What is the section of striated muscle that is marked off by “Z-discs” called? sarcomere 

11. What kind of reversible bond forms between actin and myosin?  Hydrogen bonds 

12. This kind of muscle, unlike striated voluntary muscle, is not laid out in parallel fibers, but is instead, a network or mesh: What is that kind of muscle? Smooth muscle 

13. What are the neurons called that supply nerve impulses to voluntary muscles? Anterior horn cells 

14. Electric eels are not true eels, but are actually relate to what general group? Osteichthyes (knife fish specifically) 

15. What are the individual cells in the electric organs of electric eels called? Electrocytes 

16. Who was the inventor of the battery? Alesandro Volta

Chapter 24 Answers

1. (T or F) Charles Darwin benefitted from Mendel’s work. Mendel’s work was not well known until years later 

2. What were Mendel’s three principles of heredity? For each one, make a brief statement of what the principle is stating. 

     a. Particulate theory of inheritance – Distinct traits expressed: one as dominant, another as recessive, but not as blends

     b. Law of segregation: Each plant has two factors for each trait. Each factor or particle separates during formation of the gametes.

     c. The Law of independent assortment: Each pair of factors segregates or assorts independently of the other pairs 

3. Genes come in pairs that often are not identical. What are the individual members of the pair called? alleles 

4. A botanist is studying the genetics of a squash plant. He wants to find out if a certain trait is a simple Mendelian trait. He selects plants that always produce a bumpy surface on the squash and another group that produces smooth surface squash. After several generations to be sure they were breeding true, he then cross-breeds members of the two groups and all of the first generation of seeds produce bumpy squash. What does that tell him? Draw a Punnett square to justify your answer.             

We will arbitrarily select “B” to represent bumpy and “b” to represent smooth, thus assuming the hypothesis that they are simple Mendelian traits.

This is consistent with the hypothesis Using letters that are consistent with what you used in #4, what were: The genotypes of the second generation? Bb, Bb, Bb, Bb  The phenotypes of the second generation? All bumpy 

5. The botanist also did the same experiments looking at blossom colors on the squash plants. He determines that orange blossoms are dominant over white blossoms. He cross breeds pure breeding orange blossom plants that have bumpy squash with pure breeding plants with white blossoms and smooth squash. What does the next generation look like and, using letters consistent, what is their genotype? You do not need to demonstrate your Punnett square if you use one.             We will arbitrarily select “O” for orange and “o” for white.            

The next generation will all have Orange blossoms and Bumpy skins. Their genotype is all OoBb.            The student may want to do a two trait cross test similar to Fig. 24-5 in the text. 

6.  A mother and father both have wet ear wax. They have 16 children, of whom 12 have wet ear wax and four have dry ear wax. What does this tell you about the parents’ earwax genotypes? Demonstrate by drawing the Punnett square.

The parents are likely heterozygous for wet ear wax, hence their children fall into the 3:1 ratio with 4 children having dry ear wax. Do not expect that in real life the statistics would work out so neatly as this. The more children they would have, the closer they would come to the 3:1 ratio of the phenotype. With 16 children, the parents could probably care less. 

7. Match the pattern or type of inheritance with the condition: 

8. A mother with type A- blood has children by a father with B+ blood. What will their children’s genotype be and phenotype be?     

     a.  Genotype? AB+     

     b.  Phenotype? AB+

Chapter 25 Answers

1. Write out the names of the nucleic acids represented by these initials. Please print neatly and play close attention to spelling: C G A T = Cytosine, Guanine, Adenine, Thymine

2. Match the scientist with the work: Miescher - d; Chargaff - b; Hershey/Chase - e; Rosalind Franklin - c; Watson, Crick & Wilkins - f; Meselsen/Stahl - a

3. What makes the spines or frames of DNA? . Phosphate group and ribose

4. What kinds of bonds connect the nucleotides across DNA? Hydrogen bonds

5. Which is/are the accurate pairing (s)? (circle all correct ones) G-T G-C A-C C-T A-T 

6. Which has phosphorous: DNA or many proteins? 

7. How many different codons could there conceivably be? 64 (4x4x4)

8. Which of the following statements is true?  b. The order of nucleotides in the two strands of DNA run opposite each other.

9. After one cycle of DNA replication with initial DNA strands with the heavy isotope of nitrogen in a broth containing the lighter isotope of DNA, what would you expect to see after highspeed centrifuge in CsCl? A blend of isotopes - single band 50% heavy band and 50% lighter band

10. If a batch of bacteriophage labeled with a sulfur isotope is introduced into a colony of bacteria, would you find the radioactive tag in the bacteria after blending and centrifuging? No

11. Describe these three hypothesized models of DNA replication and circle the one that proved to be true. a. Conservative b. Semiconservative c. Dispersive: Semi-Conservative proved to be the correct case in which the products of DNA replication combine a new strand with an original strand. Conservative duplicates both strands at once and Dispersive combines mixed fragments of the two strands.

12. On an old episode of NCIS, if the forensic scientist Abby Shuto was given a coffee cup used by a suspect in a murder, what technique would she probably have used to build up enough DNA to determine if it matches DNA found at the crime scene? PCR or Polymerase Chain Reaction

13. What do these two enzymes do? 

a. DNA polymerase stitches indiviual codons onto the spine of a new DNA strand.
b. Helicase opens up a portion of the DNA helix for synthesizing a new strand of DNA

14. Assuming that this is an actual protein code in DNA:
CCC GGG TTT AAA CGA GAT GTC; 

what kinds of mutations are the following: 

CCC TTT GGG AAA CGA GAT GTC?  Inversion of two codones

CCC TTT GTC GGG AAA CGA GAT GTC? The previous mutation with an additional point mutation (GTC) and insertion of a codone

CCC GGG TTT AAA GGA GAT GTC? Point mutation (GGA)

CCC GGG TTA AAG GAG ATG TC? Frame shift due to deletion of a Thymine

15. What percentage of our genomes are thought to be made up of transposons? 44%

16. What important role do transposons play in early human embryology? Catalyzes mitosis of the inner cell mass.

Chapter 26 Answers

1.  List the three differences between RNA and DNA:
     a. RNA has Ribose, not deoxyribose
     b. RNA has uracil, not thymine
     c. RNA is one strand, not two 

2. What is transcription mean wrt RNA? Copying DNA 

3. Does DNA ever leave the nucleus (I am not considering breakdown of the nuclear membrane in meiosis and mitosis as “leaving”)?  NO 

4. Which strand of DNA is copies by mRNA? The “Antisense” or “Nonsense” strand 

5. What does the letter “m” stand for in mRNA? messenger 

6. What three things does RNA polymerase do?
     a. Makes a base complement copy of the DNA for a gene
     b. Proofreads the copy
     c. Unwinds the DNA helix to do these two things 

7. What is translation mean with respect to RNA? The mRNA is used by the ribosome and tRNAs to make a protein 

8. What is the main difference in DNA between Exons and Introns?  Exons are those portions of DNA that code for a gene or are EXpressed whereas introns are non-coding Insertions. 

9. What is “alternative RNA splicing”?  Different combinations of exons are copied. 

10. What are the four exceptions to the “One Gene, One Protein” hypothesis?
    a. coding for RNAs
    b. DNA used for control of other genes
    c. DNA subjected to alternative splicing
    d.  DNA modified by epigenetic tags 

11. What is the biggest difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene switching (other than complexity)?  Prokaryotic switches generally turn things off or down whereas Eukaryotic switching includes stimulating increased production. Prokaryotic switches are generally before the genes to be expressed whereas eukaryotic switching mechanisms can be before or after or even a distance away on the DNA strand (hence DNA looping) 

12. What is DNA looping and what does it accomplish? A portion of a DNA strand is looped to bring gene switches in eukaryotes closer to the DNA that is being controlled. 

13. What two chemical groups play important roles in epigenetics? Histones and methyl groups 14. What are some of the conditions that are thought to be increased by epigenetics? Psychiatric disorders, autoimmune disorders, obesity, diabetes mellitus, cancers

 Chapter 27 Answers

1. What is the diploid number in normal human beings? 46 

2. What is the number of chromosomes in human ova (eggs)? 23 

3. What is chromatin? Pigmented protein which condenses DNA

4. What do “chaperone” proteins do? They keep the long strands of DNA from tangling.

5. One of the functions of the proteins called histones were mentioned in chapter 26. What is that function?" Spooling DNA for storage

6. What is the name of the attachment point on chromosomes? Centromere

7. What are telomeres? Protective end, much like aglets on shoe laces, that prevent unraveling of chromosomes.

8.. Does the number of chromosomes reflect the complexity of the organism?  Not at all

9. In a male human karyogram, what is strikingly different about the sex chromosomes as opposed to all the other pairs of somatic chromosomes? Significant size disparity

10. How many pairs of sex chromosomes does the duck-billed platypus have? 5 pairs

11. List three things that are accomplished in interphase that pertain to mitosis: .  Increased production of nucleic acids with DNA cuplication, Increased mitochondria, ribosomal creation of proteins important for mitosis and duplication of the centrosome toward the centromere

12. List all four phases of mitosis, and briefly describe what happens in each phase:

Prophase - Condensing of chromosome strands
Metaphase - Alignment of chromosomes on equatorial plane of the cell with kinetochores
Anaphase - Separation of chromosomes into sister chromatids which are now considered chromosomes
Telophase - cytoKinesis

Note: The PMAT (Please Make Another Twin) acrostic for the phases of mitosis and the CASK acronym for primary activity in  each phase.

Chapter 28 Answers

1. Does crossover in meiosis occur between homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids? 

2. In humans, (a) what are polar bodies and (b) what becomes of them?In humans, three of the sister cells form polar bodies which are eventually abosorbed into the ctyoplasm of the ovum.

3. In seed-bearing plants, what becomes of polar bodies? In plants, polar bodies form the endosperm of the seed.

4. What two things can you say about the four resulting daughter cells from meiosis? They are four haploid cells that are each genetically unique.

5. What is the chromosomal abnormality in Down syndrome? Trisomy 21 (Three chromosomes #21)

6. What is the chromosomal abnormality in Klinefelter syndrome? XXY (or more X's)

7. What is the chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome? XO

8. Which chromosomal nondisjunction is associated with tall men with feminine physical features? Klinefelter

9. Which chromosomal nondisjunction is associated with infertile women with webbed necks? Turner's Syndrome

10. At what approximate maternal age does the risk of trisomies start increasing? mid 30s

11. What is the science behind the appearance of calico cats’ fur? X chromosome deactivation. The cell lines for different patches of fur vary in which chromosome with a gene for color is active or inactive.

Chapter 29 Answers

1. What human organ is the target of prions? The brain

2. Is a prion a bacterium, virus, viroid or protein? 

3. What was the means of transmission of the prion in New Guinea called kuru?  Cannibalistic eating of infected human brains

4. What are amyloid deposits?  An abnormal protein complex deposit in brain cells in Parkinson's, Alzheimer's, Huntington's, Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's Disease), Jakob Creutzfeld Disease and probably others

5. What human disease is caused by a viroid? None known

6. What is a viroid? A small ring of RNA without a protein coat

7. Name one viroid disease. Potato spindle tuber disease

8. Describe a typical virus’ structure. A bit of RNA or DNA wrapped in a lipo-protein coat, often with protein molecules to identify a type of target cell

9. What are some of the differences between DNA and RNA viruses? List at least two.  DNA viruses are double-stranded and insert themselves .into the host cells' genetic material. RNA viruses are single strands and insert themselves into the host cells' ribosomes. Some RNA viruses use a reverse transcription enzyme to convert their copies into DNA

10. What is the lytic phase? At some point, the multiplying intracellular viruses break the host cell and are released.

11. List four common childhood diseases caused by viruses. Rubella, mumps, rubeola, varicella, "fifth" disease, rosella infantum, and others

12. Is strep throat due to bacteria or virus? 

13. Are antibiotics effective against viruses? No, as a matter of fact the antibiotics may make matters worse by causing a superinfection of bacteria which have become resistant to the antibiotic.

14. What are the two best defenses against a virus for which there is no medical prevention? Handwashing with soap and water for 20 seconds and avoiding crowds or close contact with people.  The benefit of masks has been questioned since this chapter was written and this may be because of improper use (touching the front of the mask or putting it over the mouth but not the nose) and less effective masks such as cloth masks.

15. What is a pandemic? A worldwide contagion

16. What neurological disease increased in frequency for several years after the Spanish flu in early 20th century? Parkinson's Disease

17. What is a bacteriophage? A virus that attacks bacteria

18. How are bacteriophage useful to humans? As vectors in genetic engineering to insert desirable genetic material into cell lines

19. What are the four common ways that viruses are transmitted? Use only one or two words for each one. Personal contact, surface contamination (esp. fecal-oral), insect vectors, sneezing or coughing

20. What does COVID-19 stand for? Corona Virus Disease 2019

Chapter 30 Answers

1. What do histocompatibility molecules do for the immune systems? Recognition of "self" vs. alien cells.

2. In brief terms, what is the main difference between the innate immunity system and the adaptive system? .  The innate immunity is what we are born with. The adaptive system is acquired immunity to a variety of additional agents.

3. In the adaptive immunity systems, what are the two arms of defense? Cellular and humoral (antibodies)

4. Which are the most numerous white blood cells?  Neutrophils

5. Which white blood cells are most likely to be involved in an allergic response? Eosinophils

6. Where are the T lymphocytes produced? the Thymus

7. Where are the B lymphocytes produced? the Bone Marrow

8. If your innate immunity successfully defends you against an infection, does that enable an even better response the next time you are exposed to the same pathogen? yes

9. White blood cells are generally in the blood stream. How do they get to infections in the tissues? by exiting the circulation between the endothelial cells lining the endothelial cells lining the capillary cells

10. What are the four parts of the innate response? Recruitment of leukocytes; histamine produced increased local circulation; heparin release to avoid clotting near the infectious site; chemical signals released to the brain to produce fever which is advantageous for immune system function and harmful to bacteria.

11. What are NK cells? Natural Killer Cells

12. Which part of an antibody molecule is a match for one specific antigen? The "Y" shaped end with heavy chains

3. What purposes does the base of the two heavy chains serve? Indicates the family of immunoglobulins

14. What is another word for antibody? Immunoglobulin

15. What are four ways that antibodies destroy harmful cells?  Clumping pathogenic (i.e., illness-causing) cells, rupturing cell walls, deactivating toxins and providing recognition factors that will cause the pathogenic cells to be gobble

16. Some lymphocytes become plasma cells. As such, what is their primary role? Antibody production

 17. What do the Helper T cells do? Helper T cells stimulate the production of T and B lymph cells.

18. What do Regulatory T cells do? Regulatory T cells inhibit attacks of the immune system against cells identified as "self" and endogenous chemicals.

19. What are the four “chemical warriors” of the immune system and what do they do? Cytokines released by damaged cells fan the vigor of the immune system; interferon is released by macrophages and are antiviral; Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) attacks cancer cells; and Interleukin released by macrophages stimulate B, T, and NK cells and increases fever.

20. True or false: Lymphatic fluid is a good place to find red blood cells? 

21. What three areas of your body are where your doctor is most likely to find swollen lymph nodes? armpits, neck, groin

22. Which of these is the most unlikely source to acquire HIV from an infected person? a. Sexual relations b. Contaminated blood c. Saliva d. Breast milk 

23. What is the difference between “HIV” and “AIDS”? HIV is the virus which attacks the immune system cells, especially helper T cells. After a sufficient number of helper T cells are destroyed AIDS is the resulting disease due to serious infections with other pathogens and wasting.

24. What are CD4 cells? Helper T cells, macrophages and monocytes

25. How do protease inhibitors help treat HIV/AIDS? They block the assembly and maturation of the viral proteins so they cannot be released from infected cells.

26. With respect to smallpox prevention, what was the variolation method? Scratching the skin with a needle contaminated with fluids from the pox vesicles

27. Who was the first physician to document that cowpox was an effective source of antigens to stimulate antibodies against smallpox? Edward Jenner

28. What is the difference between active vs. passive immunity? Passive immunity is produced by infusion of antibodies whereas active is produced by stimulating the entire immune system.

29. What is a zoonotic illness? Human illnesses transmitted by animal transportation. 

30. Explain what a vector-based vaccine is. Antibodies against mosquito saliva.

Chapter 31 Answers

F 1. Biotechnology started in the 1990s. 

T 2. Gene splicing and transferring genetic material into bacteria was first done in the early 1970s at Stanford. 

F 3. The first two vaccines released against Covid-19 were innovative in that they stimulated antibodies by injecting a crippled corona virus into recipients. 

T 4. The third vaccine released against Covid-19 used a virus associated with the common cold as a vector to introduce viral spike proteins to the recipients’ immune system. 

F 5. All three vaccines have human fetal cells in them. 

F 6. DNA profiling compares entire human genomes to establish a match. 

The following are short answer questions: 

7. GMO foods have been lab and field tested, but what kind of testing has not been done? Longterm human population studies

8. How does Bt destroy plants that are harmful to crops? Crystals produced Bt destroy intestine tissues in the target organisms.

9 What are three ways that reducing tilling in fields helps the environment? This question is misplaced into this chapter 

10. What chemical agent used for weed killing is killing amphibians and monarch butterflies? Glyphosphate toxicity, very high amounts in the product Roundup^Tm

11. Why was rDNA used to produce human insulin? It lowered the cost of insulin as a more efficient process than obtaining it from livestock.

12. Why is vitamin A deficiency so common in poor countries? Rice is a common staple in many third world country and native rice strains are usually low in vitamin A.

Match the letter of the correct match with each numbered item. 

13. c   Separating DNA portions visually  Gel electrophoresis

14. d  Cutting of portions of DNA  Restriction Enzyme

15. e  Inserting a gene into a bacterium  Bacteriophage

16. f  Injecting DNA into cell nuclei directly   Microinjection

17. g  Works well to inject DNA into plant cells  Gene gun

18. b A GMO rice with high beta-carotene  Golden Rice

19. a Gene source to make plants insect resistant  B. thurengiensis

Chapter 32 Answers

1. What does “pluripotential” mean? Stem cells that may be induced into maturing into a variety of adult or somatic cells

2. Why are there ethical concerns about using human embryonic stem cells in research? Because of sourcing material from early human embryos, often after an abortion

3. Currently, where are most embryonic stem cells obtained? Bone marrow tissue

4. Around the time that a fertilized ovum is implanted in the lining of a uterus, the cells start differentiating. They form three layers. List the three layers and indicate a specific cell type that originates in each layer. Ectoderm - skin and neurologic tissues; Mesoderm and Endoderm - internal tissues

5. Are Christians the only religious group that have adherents opposed to abortion? No

6. What is a likely reason for Jewish and Muslim believers to accept research with embryonic stem cells? A traditional belief that embryonic tissue is not truly human until later in the fetal development

7. Since humans and mice are both mammals, don’t they have very much identical embryogenesis in the earliest stages of fetal development? No, there are clear cut differences in formation of early embryos follow different paths.

8. What are three serious risks involved with implanting embryonic stem cells? .  

a. Ethical concerns, especially regarding the use of human embryos as sources and varied beliefs when an embryo is considered to be defined as a human
b. Risks of tumor formation, immune responses and unintended transmission of retroviruses or oncogenes
c.  Unethical use that goes beyond current knowledge of side-effects, including some side-effects that develop years later.

9. If one had a stem cell implant to treat a spinal cord injury, and a year later there are no problems, does that mean that problems won’t arise later? No

10-11. What are iSPCs amd their benefits? Cells to be induced into iSPCs can be taken safely from a person with their consent and there are no ethical concerns. You can be treated with cells from your own body, and hence no immune rejection. They have been successfully used for treatments of a variety of types, whereas no completely succesful results have resulted from embryonic stem cells. iSPCs do not trigger tumor formation.

12. How are iSPCs created from adult or somatic cells?  By use of genes encoding transcription factors

13. What is a very successful use of hematopoietic stem cell implants? Leukemia or lymphoma

14. What organs or tissues can provide extraembryonic stem cells? Placenta, fetal membranes in the full-term placenta, the umbilical vein and bone marrow.

15. Where did CRISPR originate? CRISPR technology was developed from bacterial defense systems.

16. What are the three parts of a CRISPR complex? Guide RNA, scaffold and CAS-9 "scissors"

17. What is the primary concern when using CRISPR, especially in the earliest experiments? "Off-target" unintended genetic change or damage

18. Why is research ongoing in using CRISPR on pigs? To rid pigs of certain retroviruses that prohibit using them as tissue or cell donors

19. What human disease analog in dogs has been well treated using CRISPR? Canine muscular dystrophy

20. What scandal in use of CRISPR on humans occurred in China in 2018? Unauthorized and illegal use in twin embryos.

 21. What are seven possible dangers in gene editing in human embryos? 

a. Off-target changes
b. The genetic changes in gamete cell lines means continuation in subsequent generations.
c. Formation of mosaic mixes of changed and unchanged cells
d. Different impact on maternal as opposed to paternal contributed genes
e. Splicing or DNA may not be followed by successful insertion of corrected gene.
f. The modified genetic material may be destroyed before successfully implanted in the target site.
g. Other mRNAs affected because of alternative RNA splicing
h. Chromosomes have gone missing
i. Increased risk of tumors
j. Possible use in warfare
Note: more than seven because of changes in wording

Chapter 33 Answers

1. Which of the following is NOT a concern in whole animal cloning?   All of these are a concern. 

2. What is Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)? Transfer of the nucleus from a female mammal's cell to a male mammal's cell after removing the male's nucleus, then using electricity to activate it to a stem cell and transferring the cell to the uterus of a female animal.

3. What is apomixis? Reproduction of a plant by a seed or spore without male pollen or gamete.

4. True or False? Parthenogenesis in animals is a myth. 

5. Dean Kamen stimulated the formation of A.R.M.I. What does the acronym stand for? Advanced Regenerative Medicine Initiative

6. What two proteins are often common materials in the scaffold for a manufactured organ?  Plastics, proteins and growth factors

7. What are min proteins? Small protein clusters that provide a gradient of inhibition of cell division, highly inhibitive at the cell poles and none at the cell's equator, so cell division occurs in the middle of the cell.

8. What is one reason why the genome of Mycoplasma mycoides is so small?   M. mycoides is a parasite and depends on the host cells' genes for much metabolic or reproductive function, hence reducing the need for these functions to be encoded in the parasites' genome.

9. What is the approximate number of necessary genes for which their function has not been determined in the research in minimal genome cell synthesis at the J. Craig Institute? approximately 100 (as of 2022)

10. Which bacterial genus has had its entire genome replaced with manmade genes? E. coli

11. In terms of propagation through a population of mosquitos, what advantage do gene drives have over replacing one allele in a part of the population?  The ability to replace or destroy a gene in both alleles, hence eliminating the natural gene function throughout a population within a few generations.

12. What are the three primary concerns of using gene drives outside of a laboratory? 

a.  Affected organisms can move away into nontreated populations and eradicate an entire species with unintended biome effects.
b. Mutations can occur in the gene drive with unintended or unpredicted results.
c.  Hybridization can mean unintended results in a closely related species.

13. What attenuated bacterium was used in the treatment of bladder cancer? (Acronym is fine) bcg

 The following are matching exercises: 

14. First surviving mammalian clone  e. the sheep "Dolly"

15. Natural clones h.  vegetative plant cuttings 

16. Unique reproductive feature of hammerhead sharks  f. parthenogenesis

17. No pollen or male seed involved d. apomixis 

18. Surface forces dominate volumetric forces g. microfluidics

19. Finding the center of a bacterium  a. min proteins

20. Component of gene drives  b. selfish genes

21. Doxil^TM, first approved nanomedicine  c. carried doxorubicin for chemotherapy

Chapter 34 Answers

1. Which of the following are true of the Miller-Urey experiments? (Indicate “T” or “F”) 

T  a. Some amino acids were formed. 

F  b. They were able to let the experiment run for the weekend while they were at home. 

F  c. They successfully reproduced the atmosphere of the early earth. 

F  d. They used long-wavelength ultraviolet light because it worked better. 

T  e. The amino acids were in racemic mixtures. 

2. Is there geologic evidence for a “prebiotic soup”? NO

3. What is a potential source of amino acids that does not depend on earth chemistry?  meteors

4. True or False: Even for a minimal genome, the odds against random combinations of the necessary components are astronomical. 

5. Indicate “T” or “F” for each of these statements about the RNA world and ribozymes. 

F  a. Ribozymes are easy to fabricate. 

F  b. Scientists have found many functions for ribozymes. 

F  c. Ribozymes are excellent storage for complex information. 

F  d. Experiments with ribozymes require human intervention. 

6. Indicate “T” or “F” for each of these statements about the endosymbiotic theory. 

F  a. One of the double phospholipid membranes around mitochondria has similar chemistry to that of bacteria.

F  b. All mitochondria have ring DNA. 

T  c. Bacterial DNA does not have introns. 

F  d. Mitochondria have no functional relationship to nuclear DNA. 

T  e. There are rare occasions when a father passes his mitochondria to the next generation.

7. Regarding the multiverse theories, which ONE of these statements is true. (Circle the letter of the correct response.) 

c. When comparing the two proposed explanations for a universe finely tuned for intelligent life, an all-powerful creator OR an infinite number of universes with different physical laws, the latter meets the Occam’s Razor test. 

8. State Occam’s Razor in your own words. Of two conflicting theories, the simpler is to be preferred.

Chapter 35 Answers

1. Indicate for the following statements if they areTrue or False: 

F  a. Darwin relied on the work of Mendel to develop his ideas. 

T  b. Darwin was ignorant of the details inside a cell. 

F  c. Darwin was a pastor for much of his life. 

F d. Darwin was an agnostic when he joined the crew on the Beagle and was an Evangelical Christian by the time he returned home. 

F. e. Darwin was completely wrong about everything he presented in his book, The Origin ofSpecies. 

2. Following are three entirely made-up scenarios of selection. For each one, indicate if it is an example of directional, stabilizing or disruptive. 

a. Because of several years of increased precipitation, moss on the banks of a river system has become more prominent. As a result, after several years a particular population of frogs has many more green individuals instead of brown. directional

b. Because of a severe earthquake in Southern California, a canyon roughly 8 miles long appears. Twenty years later it is noticed that a certain species of spiders has undergone changes. In the Western side of the canyon, most of the population have black hairs around their bodies, whereas those on the Eastern side have the same brown hairs as the original population did twenty years ago. When specimens of the two populations are brought together, they do not mate with each other. disruptive

c. A certain species of squirrels has been in a stable environment for 200 years. Originally, the population had a varied diet of different nuts, although they preferred the acorns of a particular variety of oak tree that was quite common in their ecosystem. More recently it is noted that all the squirrels preferred those acorns only, to the exclusion of the acorns of other kinds of oak trees.  stabilizing

The following numbered items are for matching: 

3. Founder effects h.Genetic bottleneck results

4. Blackened peppermoths  d. “Jumping” gene

5.Beak changes in Darwin’s finches  g. Epigenetics played a big role 

6.Bacterial antibiotic resistance  c.Loss of genetic information  

7.Additionof new genetic information  f. Necessary for “macroevolution” 

8.More blue eyes inblonds b.Chromosome (Genetic)linkage .

9.Malaria resistance insickle cell disease e. Heterozygote advantage 

10.Cichlid fish inLakeVictoria a. Niche influence on selection 

Chapter 36 Answers

1. Which statement is true regarding when life began?  c. Life began almost exactly when it was physically possible.

2. What is especially significant and puzzling about Cambrian strata? The relatively sudden appearance of organisms of varying complexity and representative of most of our current phyla and some that are extinct. One finds very little of prior organisms in the fossil record.

3. What is a stromatolite?  Fossilized layers of prokaryotic fossils representing earliest life.

4. What do they informally call organisms like gingko trees, horseshoe crabs and coelacanths? "Living fossils"

5. Where in the world are all of the geologic strata completely revealed? Nowhere

6. According to Jerry Coyne, approximately how many species have been identified a. 0.1 to 1.0 per cent of all extinct species

7. What is the estimate of the number of species that are currently on earth?  1 trillion species is estimated, but one can legitimately be skeptical of the basis for such an estimate.

8. What is the estimated percentage of living species that have been described?  1/1000th of 1 per cent

9. What does “ontogeny reflect phylogeny” mean in plain English? That the development of an embryo demonstrates the evolutionary history of that species. This was primarily addressing vertebrate embryology.

10. Do similar appearing features in the embryos of different species mean that one evolved from the other?  No

11. Following are some statements pertaining to the extinct Tiktaalik. Label each one as either True or False. 

T  a. Tiktaalik had a mobile neck unlike most fish. 

F  b. Tiktaalik fossils showed lungs. But suggested by airholes in the top of the head

F  c. Fossil imprints of footprints demonstrating 4 limbs in a reciprocal walking pattern were dated as after the fossils of Tiktaalik. Well before!

F  d. The proposed sequence of fossils from fish to amphibians are entirely consistent in order of complexity and accumulation of traits.

T   e. Tiktaalik had a flexible wrist. 

12. Has there been definite fossil evidence of fully formed bipennate flying feathers in reptiles? No

13. What is paradoxical about birds’ hips and their supposed evolution? .  "Bird-like" hips are not seen in the fossils of the dinosaurs that are purportedly the ancestors of birds. There are other dinosaur lines that had bird-like hips

14-15. What is the difference between the balance point of birds and theropods? Theropod point of balance was at the hips and so the tails are long to provide a counterbalance.  Birds' point of balance is through the knees and so their tails are shorter.

16. What two modern birds have claws on their wings as juveniles?  The hoatzin and the curaco

17. Was hyracotherium really an ancient horse ancestor? No, it is more likely a hyrax type mammal.

18. What is the current theory why birds have beaks instead of teeth? The best theory currently is that it conserves calcium for developing eggshells.

19. What is the most common kind of fossil? Marine invertebrates

20. What is the second most common kind of fossil? Algae and plants

Chapter 37 Answers

1. Indicate True or False for each of these statements: 

   F  A significant percentage of all fossils are of hominins.  Primate fossils as a group amount to 0.001% of all vertebrate fossils

   T  The size of teeth and thickness of enamel are not entirely reliable to distinguish apes from humans. 

   F  Generally, apes have dome-like skulls and humans have domes that slope back from the eye sockets.  Actually vice-versa

   T  Neanderthals have larger occipital (back or posterior) parts of their skulls than humans do. 

   F  There is no overlap in ape and human features. 

   T  Human eye-sockets are wider than tall. 

   F  Human brains are 1.5 times as big as chimpanzee brains.  Human brains average 1350 gm while chimpanzees are 400 gm

   F  Humans and chimps are believed by evolutionists to have separated in evolution from a common ancestor about 200,000 years ago.  Thought to be 4 to 8 million years ago  (Note: This author considers Homo sapiens as a separate and unique creation by God.)

   F  We definitely know that the australopithecines had orange sclerae. 

   T  Neanderthals may have been Homo sapiens. 

2. What do the brachial folds in human embryos become by birth? Middle ear bones and portions of jaw

3. What does the long spinal extension in human embryos become? Support for pelvic floor muscles

4. Describe a function in adult humans for each of the so-called vestigial organs: 

    a. Wisdom teeth In groups of humans that subsist on highly fibrous foods, these provide needed grinding.

    b. Hair on appendages  A boundary layer of warmer air and extrusion of sebum from the follicles to lubricate and protect the skin

    c. Appendix  The source of some of the immune system cells in the embryo and a repository of healthy bowel bacvteria in case of decimation of the normal bowel flora.

    d. Outer ear muscles  Part of a directional response of the ears to sound.

5. Is our vision hampered because of a “backward retina” design?  Not at all

6. Give one reason why the retina needs to be oriented the way it is. The design allows quick recharging of cone cells because of the highly vascular nature of the choroid plexus. Light is collimated (made parallel) by Mueller cells for increased acuity.

7. What is the main cause of the common back problems in our culture?   Excessive sitting and poor core strength, both of which can be addressed. 

8. What are two functions of the choroid plexus behind our retinas?  Vascular nourishment for the photoreceptor cells and avoiding light scatter which would deteeriorate the resolution of the image.

9. If a camera is a good analogy for the front part of the eye, what is an even better analogy for the retina?  A microcomputer or transducer

10. Number each of the following species in the order in which they appeared in fossil layers, using 1 to indicate the earliest: 

   2  Homo habilis

   1  Australopithecus afarensis

   5  Homo sapiens

   4  Homo neanderthalis 

   3  Homo erectus 

11. For each of the statements regarding human chromosome 2, indicate if True or False. 

 T   a. Evolutionists think that human chromosome 2 is a fusion of two chimp chromosomes. 

 F  b. As would be expected, there are clearly four telomeres and two centromeres.

  T  c. A reduction in the number of chromosomes in an ancestral species would have made reproduction difficult to impossible. 

12. List four historic world leaders who were inspired in their policies by the writings of Charles Darwin:  Pol Pot, Hitler, Marx, Stalin and Mao